Original practice questions by domain, each with a worked explanation. scripts/quiz.py reads this file:
keep the ### <id> | <domain> heading, options - A)..- D), Answer: and Why: lines.
F01 | Fundamentals
A process running at 3.4 defects per million opportunities is described as:
- A) 3 sigma
- B) 4.5 sigma short-term
- C) 6 sigma short-term (with the 1.5 sigma shift)
- D) 6 sigma long-term Answer: C Why: 3.4 DPMO is the long-term tail at 4.5 sigma; adding the conventional 1.5 shift gives 6 sigma short-term.
F02 | Fundamentals
Producing more, or earlier, than the next process or customer needs is which waste?
- A) Inventory
- B) Overproduction
- C) Motion
- D) Over-processing Answer: B Why: Overproduction is making too much or too early; it creates inventory, which is a separate waste.
F03 | Fundamentals
Available time is 27,000 s per shift and customer demand is 450 units per shift. What is the takt time?
- A) 45 s
- B) 60 s
- C) 75 s
- D) 600 s Answer: B Why: Takt = available time / demand = 27,000 / 450 = 60 s per unit.
F04 | Fundamentals
Which role sponsors a project, selects it and removes organisational barriers?
- A) Champion
- B) Green belt
- C) Process owner
- D) Master black belt Answer: A Why: The champion (sponsor) owns the business case and removes barriers; the process owner sustains the gains.
F05 | Fundamentals
Three steps have first-pass yields of 95%, 90% and 98%. What is the rolled throughput yield?
- A) 90.8%
- B) 83.8%
- C) 94.3%
- D) 98.0% Answer: B Why: RTY = 0.95 x 0.90 x 0.98 = 0.838. The average (94.3%) hides the hidden factory.
F06 | Fundamentals
In the Kano model, a feature whose absence causes dissatisfaction but whose presence does not raise satisfaction is:
- A) Must-be (basic)
- B) Performance (one-dimensional)
- C) Attractive (delighter)
- D) Indifferent Answer: A Why: Basic requirements are expected; meeting them only avoids dissatisfaction.
D01 | Define
A good problem statement contains:
- A) The root cause
- B) The proposed solution
- C) What, where, when and the magnitude of the gap
- D) The names of the team members Answer: C Why: The problem statement describes the measurable gap; causes come in Analyze and solutions in Improve.
D02 | Define
In a SIPOC diagram, the "C" stands for:
- A) Controls
- B) Customers
- C) Costs
- D) CTQs Answer: B Why: Suppliers, Inputs, Process, Outputs, Customers.
D03 | Define
A customer need translated into a measurable requirement with a specification is a:
- A) CTQ
- B) SIPOC
- C) RACI
- D) Gantt chart Answer: A Why: Critical-to-quality characteristics come from the voice of the customer via a CTQ tree.
D04 | Define
Which tool is used to agree what is inside and outside the project scope?
- A) In-frame / out-of-frame
- B) Pareto chart
- C) Control chart
- D) Scatter plot Answer: A Why: In/out of frame (or scope statements) makes boundaries explicit before the project starts.
D05 | Define
Which of these is a cost of poor quality?
- A) The annual training budget
- B) Scrap, rework and warranty claims
- C) Machine depreciation
- D) Design engineers' salaries Answer: B Why: COPQ covers internal failure (scrap, rework), external failure (warranty, returns) and appraisal.
D06 | Define
An operational definition of the primary metric is needed so that:
- A) Everyone measures and counts it the same way
- B) The metric improves faster
- C) The project can skip Measure
- D) The champion can approve the charter Answer: A Why: Without an operational definition, different people produce different numbers for the same process.
M01 | Measure
A Gage R&R study gives 25% of study variation and ndc = 6. The measurement system is:
- A) Acceptable
- B) Conditionally acceptable
- C) Unacceptable
- D) Impossible to judge Answer: B Why: Under 10% is acceptable, 10-30% conditionally acceptable depending on the application, over 30% unacceptable; ndc >= 5 is met.
M02 | Measure
The minimum recommended number of distinct categories (ndc) for a gauge used for process control is:
- A) 2
- B) 3
- C) 5
- D) 10 Answer: C Why: AIAG recommends ndc of 5 or more.
M03 | Measure
USL = 10.6, LSL = 9.4 and sigma = 0.1. What is Cp?
- A) 1.00
- B) 1.33
- C) 2.00
- D) 4.00 Answer: C Why: Cp = (USL - LSL) / 6 sigma = 1.2 / 0.6 = 2.0.
M04 | Measure
Same process: USL 10.6, LSL 9.4, sigma 0.1, mean 10.2. What is Cpk?
- A) 1.33
- B) 2.00
- C) 2.67
- D) 0.67 Answer: A Why: Cpk = min((10.6 - 10.2) / 0.3, (10.2 - 9.4) / 0.3) = min(1.33, 2.67) = 1.33.
M05 | Measure
"Number of scratches per panel" is what type of data?
- A) Continuous
- B) Count (discrete)
- C) Ordinal
- D) Nominal Answer: B Why: Counts of defects per unit are discrete; they are charted with c or u charts.
M06 | Measure
Subgroups of 5 give R-bar = 0.4652 (d2 = 2.326). What is the within-subgroup sigma estimate?
- A) 0.093
- B) 0.200
- C) 0.465
- D) 1.082 Answer: B Why: sigma = R-bar / d2 = 0.4652 / 2.326 = 0.200.
A01 | Analyze
To compare mean tensile strength from three suppliers (normal data), use:
- A) Chi-square test
- B) One-way ANOVA
- C) Paired t-test
- D) 2-proportion test Answer: B Why: A continuous Y across three or more groups is compared with one-way ANOVA.
A02 | Analyze
A test gives p = 0.03 with alpha = 0.05. The correct conclusion is:
- A) Fail to reject H0
- B) Reject H0
- C) Accept H0
- D) H1 is proven false Answer: B Why: p < alpha, so reject the null hypothesis; we never "accept" H0.
A03 | Analyze
A type II error is:
- A) Rejecting a true null hypothesis
- B) Failing to reject a false null hypothesis
- C) The same as alpha
- D) Using the wrong test Answer: B Why: Beta (type II) is missing a real difference; alpha (type I) is a false alarm.
A04 | Analyze
A correlation coefficient r = -0.9 means:
- A) A weak negative relationship
- B) A strong negative linear relationship
- C) X causes Y to fall
- D) No relationship Answer: B Why: |r| close to 1 is a strong linear relationship; correlation does not prove causation.
A05 | Analyze
A simple regression has R-sq = 0.64 and a positive slope. What is r?
- A) 0.41
- B) 0.64
- C) 0.80
- D) 0.32 Answer: C Why: For simple linear regression r = sqrt(R-sq) = 0.8, with the sign of the slope.
A06 | Analyze
To compare the defective rates (pass/fail) of two shifts, use:
- A) 2-sample t-test
- B) 2-proportion test
- C) One-way ANOVA
- D) F-test Answer: B Why: The output is attribute (proportion defective) and there are two groups.
I01 | Improve
How many runs does a 2^(5-1) fractional factorial design have (no replicates, no centre points)?
- A) 8
- B) 16
- C) 32
- D) 10 Answer: B Why: 2^(5-1) = 2^4 = 16 runs.
I02 | Improve
In a resolution IV design:
- A) Main effects are aliased with two-factor interactions
- B) Main effects are clear of two-factor interactions, which are aliased with each other
- C) All main effects and two-factor interactions are clear
- D) There is no aliasing Answer: B Why: Resolution IV: shortest word in the defining relation has 4 letters.
I03 | Improve
The response averages 52 at the high level of factor A and 46 at the low level. The effect of A is:
- A) 3
- B) 6
- C) 49
- D) 98 Answer: B Why: Effect = mean(high) - mean(low) = 6; the coded regression coefficient is half of it (3).
I04 | Improve
Poka-yoke means:
- A) Mistake-proofing
- B) 5S
- C) Visual management
- D) Kanban Answer: A Why: Poka-yoke devices prevent or immediately detect errors.
I05 | Improve
Why is the run order of an experiment randomised?
- A) To reduce the number of runs
- B) To protect against lurking variables and time trends
- C) To increase the resolution
- D) To remove interactions Answer: B Why: Randomisation spreads unknown time-related effects across all factor settings.
I06 | Improve
Centre points added to a two-level factorial allow you to detect:
- A) Interactions
- B) Curvature
- C) Aliasing
- D) Blocks Answer: B Why: Comparing the centre mean with the factorial mean tests for curvature (and gives pure error).
C01 | Control
X-double-bar = 50, R-bar = 4, n = 5 (A2 = 0.577). What is the UCL of the X-bar chart?
- A) 52.31
- B) 54.00
- C) 51.15
- D) 56.92 Answer: A Why: UCL = 50 + 0.577 x 4 = 52.31.
C02 | Control
Which chart is used for fraction defective with a varying sample size?
- A) np chart
- B) p chart
- C) c chart
- D) u chart Answer: B Why: p charts plot the fraction defective and allow limits to vary with n.
C03 | Control
Eight consecutive points on one side of the centre line most likely indicate:
- A) Normal variation
- B) A shift in the process mean
- C) Increased variation only
- D) Over-control Answer: B Why: A run of 8 (Western Electric rule 4) signals a sustained shift.
C04 | Control
When an out-of-specification part is found, the reaction plan should first:
- A) Adjust the machine and continue
- B) Stop, contain suspect product since the last good check, then correct
- C) Recalculate the control limits
- D) Increase the sample size next week Answer: B Why: Containment protects the customer; correction follows.
C05 | Control
Control limits are calculated from:
- A) The specification limits
- B) Process data
- C) The customer's requirements
- D) The engineering drawing Answer: B Why: Control limits describe the voice of the process; specifications are the voice of the customer.
C06 | Control
At the end of the Control phase, ownership of the improved process is handed to the:
- A) Champion
- B) Process owner
- C) Master black belt
- D) Finance team Answer: B Why: The process owner keeps the control plan alive; finance only validates savings.
8d-problem-solving-report-writer
Write and review 8D problem-solving reports for customer complaints and serious nonconformities (automotive and aerospace practice: Ford Global 8D, VDA, GM, Stellantis formats): D0 emergency response, D1 cross-functional team and champion, D2 problem description with 5W2H and is / is-not and no cause in the statement, D3 interim containment within 24 hours with verification and clean point, D4 verified occurrence and escape (non-detection) root causes plus systemic cause, D5 permanent corrective actions for each cause verified before implementation, D6 implementation, validation with production data and removal of containment, D7 PFMEA, control plan and read-across to similar products, D8 closure and recognition. Checks an 8D discipline by discipline for missing content, human-error root causes, missing escape cause or action, late containment and dates out of order.
acceptance-sampling-plan-selector
Select and evaluate acceptance sampling plans for incoming, in-process and final inspection: ANSI/ASQ Z1.4 / ISO 2859-1 single sampling under normal inspection (code letter from lot size and inspection level I, II, III, S-1 to S-4; sample size, Ac and Re from AQL, following the table's arrows to the correct plan; 100% when n reaches the lot size; AQLs above 10 per 100 units), operating characteristic curves (Pa at any quality, producer's quality level, indifference point, LTPD, AOQ and AOQL, binomial or hypergeometric), plans designed from producer and consumer risk, and c = 0 zero-acceptance plans. Covers AQL choice by defect class, switching rules between normal, tightened and reduced inspection, when sampling is not appropriate, and random sampling.
approved-supplier-list-manager
Manage and audit an approved supplier list (ASL) / external provider register for ISO 9001 8.4.1, IATF 16949 8.4 and AS9100 8.4.1: supplier status (approved, conditional, probation, pending, disqualified), scope of approval by commodity and process, risk class, certification and expiry, re-evaluation intervals by risk, conditions with end dates, single-source contingency, approver and customer-directed sources. Audits the list for expired or expiring certificates, overdue re-evaluations, conditional or probation status past its decision date, high-risk suppliers without the required certification, single-source suppliers without backup and missing approvers, and checks purchase orders for suppliers that are off-list, disqualified or pending, or buying outside the approved scope. Covers ERP blocks, PO requirements, off-list and emergency purchases.
apqp-phase-planner
Plan and track Advanced Product Quality Planning (AIAG APQP 3rd edition, IATF 16949) for a new or changed automotive part: back-schedule the five phases (plan and define, product design, process design, product and process validation, launch and feedback) from the start-of-production date by program complexity, with overlap, PPAP lead and safe-launch period; list the deliverables and gate for each phase (DFMEA, DVP&R, feasibility, process flow, PFMEA, control plans, MSA, Ppk, run at rate, PPAP, safe launch, lessons learned); adjust for build-to-print suppliers; flag compressed timelines and late or untracked deliverables against a status list. Covers gate reviews, red/yellow/green status reporting, run at rate and safe-launch exit criteria.
as9100-gap-analyzer
Run an AS9100D / EN 9100:2018 gap analysis for aviation, space and defence suppliers on the requirements added to ISO 9001: on-time delivery and conformity focus, management representative, ethics and human-factors awareness, operational planning and operational risk management, configuration management, product safety, counterfeit-part prevention, special requirements, critical items and key characteristics, external provider register and flow-down, FOD prevention, tooling and NC program control, special process validation, first article inspection (AS9102), traceability, in-service data and nonconforming product control. Generates and scores a worksheet, grades missing core controls as major, and checks invalid n/a claims. Covers AS9101/AS9104, OASIS, AS9102 FAI forms, counterfeit standards (AS5553, AS6174, AS6081), NADCAP and the planned IA9100 transition.
audit-report-writer
Write internal, supplier and pre-certification audit reports with the content ISO 19011:2018 6.5 expects: audit objectives, scope, criteria with revisions, dates, team and auditees, method and sampling statement, specific strengths, findings table and three-part finding details (requirement, evidence, statement), conclusion on the degree of fulfilment of criteria, diverging opinions, follow-up deadlines and distribution. Builds a Markdown report from a JSON audit record, generates the conclusion from the findings (major / minor / none) and flags reports missing required content or findings without clause or evidence. Covers conclusion wording, closing meetings, response expectations and verifying corrective actions.